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Gender agreement in translation: Ob infirmam valetudinem

by anon
(Usa)

I'm trying to traslate a passage about Caesar's death and one of the sentences is "Idibus Martiis Caesar ob infirmum valetudinem domo exire dubitavit." How does infirmum function in this sentence? Thank you!



It doesn't! Whatever book you are using has a typo/mistake, as valetudo is feminine. It should read ob infirmam valetudinem.

Hope this helps, and thanks for asking a Latin teacher.

Sincerely,

John



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